AEMCA Medical Emergencies 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient presents with sudden severe headache described as 'the worst of my life,' neck stiffness, and photophobia. What should the AEMCA suspect?
- Tension headache
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage (Correct answer)
- Migraine with aura
- Hypertensive urgency
Correct answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A sudden 'thunderclap' headache with meningeal signs strongly suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage, a life-threatening emergency.
Question 2: Which of the following best describes Kussmaul respirations?
- Slow, shallow breaths with apneic periods
- Deep, rapid, labored breathing (Correct answer)
- Alternating periods of apnea and hyperpnea
- Irregular gasping breaths
Correct answer: Deep, rapid, labored breathing
Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid, and labored, representing the body's attempt to blow off CO2 in metabolic acidosis such as diabetic ketoacidosis.
Question 3: A patient with known epilepsy has been seizing continuously for 8 minutes. This condition is classified as:
- Absence seizure
- Simple partial seizure
- Status epilepticus (Correct answer)
- Postictal state
Correct answer: Status epilepticus
Status epilepticus is defined as a seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or two or more seizures without regaining consciousness between them.
Question 4: Which sign is most specific for right-sided heart failure in a medical emergency assessment?
- Pulmonary edema with crackles
- Jugular venous distension (Correct answer)
- Pink frothy sputum
- Orthopnea
Correct answer: Jugular venous distension
Jugular venous distension (JVD) reflects elevated central venous pressure and is most specific for right-sided heart failure.
Question 5: A patient presents with chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. The pain radiates to the jaw. Their ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely affected?
- Left anterior descending artery
- Left circumflex artery
- Right coronary artery (Correct answer)
- Left main coronary artery
Correct answer: Right coronary artery
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior MI, most commonly caused by right coronary artery occlusion.
Question 6: Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention for a patient in anaphylactic shock?
- IV diphenhydramine 50mg
- IM epinephrine 0.3mg (1:1,000) (Correct answer)
- IV methylprednisolone 125mg
- Albuterol nebulization
Correct answer: IM epinephrine 0.3mg (1:1,000)
Intramuscular epinephrine (1:1,000) into the lateral thigh is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid onset and life-saving effects.
Question 7: A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that began 45 minutes ago. The MOST critical action is:
- Administer aspirin 324mg immediately
- Establish IV access and administer fluid bolus
- Transport immediately to a stroke center (Correct answer)
- Perform a full neurological assessment before transport
Correct answer: Transport immediately to a stroke center
Time is brain — immediate transport to a stroke center maximizes the window for thrombolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy.
A patient presents with sudden severe headache described as 'the worst of my life,' neck stiffness, and photophobia.
What should the AEMCA suspect?